Blame :: essays research papers

Are near people more(prenominal)(prenominal) to blame for a crime then others and if so wherefore? This is a question which many people wonder about today. I think the answer is yes. People who are brought up in a certain way are more likely to commit a certain crime than others. In he following I will visualize why certain people are more to blame then others for the crimes that they commit.Before looking at the issue of if some people are more to blame than others we must first look the reasons in which people may commit crimes and the type of crimes. There are a variety of reasons for a individual to commit a crime including greed, to be famous, need for money, pure hate, and insanity. The crimes in which they commit range from murder, robberies, or rape. After looking at reasons why and the types of crimes it is instanter possible to look at the larger issue at hand. If a soul is poor and they are performing a robbery to get some money to feed their baby should they be m ore to blame than someone who is complete but performing the same robbery because they are greedy. There is no right answer to this but I think that the person who is robbing the store to help his kid is less to blame. I say this because even though the person is poor it is not always his fault. He may not be able to get money for his baby but would still feels the need to put up for it. This is what forces him to rob the store. I feel people should look at him with a bit of compassion because the reason that he was committing the crime was not a ungenerous one but one that benefits others. On the other hand the rich guy who robbed the store cause he was greedy should be help more accountable for his crime. Since he is rich and did not need the money and only committed the crime because of his own selfishness he is more to blame. You might say why should the blame be divided differently between the two people if in fact they did commit the same crime. Now it is true that they are twain supposed to be equal but are they really truly equal. How can we say that a poor person is equal to a rich one?